Why are Americans still using the old imperial unit system?
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"A poor craftsman blames his tools" If you are not accurate in your measurements, then your data will be flawed....REGARDLESS of which specific system you use!! So Metrics don't lend themselves to MORE accurate measurements, just easier to express as it has fewer numbers. Now if the amount of numbers in an equation becomes TOO daunting, then by all means, translate them into Metrics for your peace (piece?)of mind. But don't try to explain away accuracy of measurements due to fewer numbers as valid, besides which, how many people here can even do ANY of this math in their heads, without a calculator anyway??? Speaking of overly simple!!
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Originally Posted by swajames' post='635445' date='Jul 29 2008, 05:18 PM
Because the converse is equally true. One imperial unit, or any whole number of imperial units, may equally translate to fractions of a metric unit.
When describing a constant measurement, is 1 inch any more or any less accurate than 25.4 millimeters? Or 0.0254 meters? Or 2.54?10[sup]-5[/sup] kilometers?
When describing a constant measurement, is 1 inch any more or any less accurate than 25.4 millimeters? Or 0.0254 meters? Or 2.54?10[sup]-5[/sup] kilometers?
Accuracy and precision are two different things, aren't they?
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Well Rudy you've brought up some good points and where's what I've found out.
source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Accuracy_and_precision
So if i read this right then the metric system is more precise than the imperial system. However my question still remains: what happens when a metric value is converted to an imperial one and the result is periodic? Is the metrical value more "correct" than the imperial periodic number (presumably infinite?)
In the fields of science, engineering, industry and statistics, accuracy is the degree of conformity of a measured or calculated quantity to its actual (true) value. Accuracy is closely related to precision, also called reproducibility or repeatability, the degree to which further measurements or calculations show the same or similar results.
Looking at this in another way, a value of 8 would mean that the measurement has been made with a precision of '1' (the measuring instrument was able to measure only up to 1's place) whereas a value of 8.0 (though mathematically equal to 8) would mean that the value at the first decimal place was measured and was found to be zero. (The measuring instrument was able to measure the first decimal place.) The second value is more precise. Neither of the measured values may be accurate (the actual value could be 9.5 but measured inaccurately as 8 in both instances). Thus, accuracy can be said to be the 'correctness' of a measurement, while precision could be identified as the ability to resolve smaller differences.
So if i read this right then the metric system is more precise than the imperial system. However my question still remains: what happens when a metric value is converted to an imperial one and the result is periodic? Is the metrical value more "correct" than the imperial periodic number (presumably infinite?)
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Originally Posted by flyingpuck' post='635547' date='Jul 30 2008, 03:13 AM
"A poor craftsman blames his tools" If you are not accurate in your measurements, then your data will be flawed....REGARDLESS of which specific system you use!! So Metrics don't lend themselves to MORE accurate measurements, just easier to express as it has fewer numbers. Now if the amount of numbers in an equation becomes TOO daunting, then by all means, translate them into Metrics for your peace (piece?)of mind. But don't try to explain away accuracy of measurements due to fewer numbers as valid, besides which, how many people here can even do ANY of this math in their heads, without a calculator anyway??? Speaking of overly simple!!
If you are not precise in your measurements, then your data can be flawed....REGARDLESS of which specific system you use!! So Metrics don't necessarily lend themselves to MORE accurate measurements, but since they are more likely to record precisely then they are more likely to come closer to being more accurate (come closer to the actual true value).
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Originally Posted by BetterMakeWay' post='635792' date='Jul 30 2008, 01:16 AM
However my question still remains: what happens when a metric value is converted to an imperial one and the result is periodic? Is the metrical value more "correct" than the imperial periodic number (presumably infinite?)
If your theory holds good, it must logically be equally true for both systems. The only variable is whether you start with a metric measurement and try convert it to imperial, or the other way around.
At the end of the day, the only points I wanted to make is that each system is just as capable of precision and accuracy (by whatever definition) as the other, and that metric isn't necessarily better just because it's easier to use or more widely adopted.
We're clearly kind of flogging a dead horse now, but it's been a fun and interesting debate!
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Originally Posted by BetterMakeWay' post='635792' date='Jul 30 2008, 04:16 AM
So if i read this right then the metric system is more precise than the imperial system.
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Originally Posted by swajames' post='635846' date='Jul 30 2008, 04:07 PM
BetterMakeWay, the question you pose is reasonable, but it can be asked in either direction. A conversion the other way round (if you were to start with an imperial measurement) is just as likely to result in a metric result which isn't a whole number (look at some examples in my earlier post).
If your theory holds good, it must logically be equally true for both systems. The only variable is whether you start with a metric measurement and try convert it to imperial, or the other way around.
At the end of the day, the only points I wanted to make is that each system is just as capable of precision and accuracy (by whatever definition) as the other, and that metric isn't necessarily better just because it's easier to use or more widely adopted.
We're clearly kind of flogging a dead horse now, but it's been a fun and interesting debate!
If your theory holds good, it must logically be equally true for both systems. The only variable is whether you start with a metric measurement and try convert it to imperial, or the other way around.
At the end of the day, the only points I wanted to make is that each system is just as capable of precision and accuracy (by whatever definition) as the other, and that metric isn't necessarily better just because it's easier to use or more widely adopted.
We're clearly kind of flogging a dead horse now, but it's been a fun and interesting debate!
While that would hardly happen or come in handy in real life, the other way around, for small units and micro sized measurements it is a must in human life. It's not like someone, for example, would want to ask you how many inches does it have to go from this gas station to the other, or the next train station.
Again while what you say is probably true, being just a case of variable, mathematically it may very well be just as relative but in real life it ain't gonna happen to soon. While measuring for example microprocessors transistors distance will have to be done in units less than mm like nm, no way in inches or grains. Just probably for the sake of precision, accuracy may very well be relative
Anyway i agree this has been an interesting debate and i'm glad i had something to learn from it.
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Originally Posted by advancedlogic' post='633313' date='Jul 26 2008, 08:46 PM
. Hell, to us the very mention of the word 'kilo' can land your ass in jail!!!
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